How can we prove that paedophelia is wrong?
Let us look at the notion of consent. Here, paedophelia is villanised as non-consensual. When there is no consent between two parties, one is assumed to be victimised.
Are there inherent assumptions (haha, tautology!) in our idea and understanding of consent?
Are children (the "paedo"s for your "phelia") incapable of understanding consent? Or what is it about our idea of "children" that excludes them from the domain of consent?
If we looked at it historically and from a social constructionist point of view, "children" are a relatively young concept, having surfaced in the industrial period. It has not helped that religion (religious institutions) and science in the industrial period have also created a new paradigm which segregates and ascribes meanings and value to various age groups. In this view, paedophelia is also a social construct, carrying along with it its historical, cultural and socio-legal baggage. (see social construction of childhood)
Here, if industrial and post-industrial "childhood" become arbitrary, does the wrong-ness of paedophelia change?
The thing is, what or who benefits or becomes protected, validated and/or justified in the institutionalisation/criminalisation of "paedophelia" as something that is considered wrong on many fronts? Can we ever problematise the dominant discourse on "paedophelia"?
Are we perpetuating an idea that age and body size and the medico-scientific prescription that is "maturity" are possible variables for discrimination and oppression? Then, how and to what extent is the discourse on "paedophelia" ageist (for example)? Also, how and to what extent are science and medicine complicit in normalising the idea that paedophelia is wrong?
Can we not see the trivialising of childhood as a category? This category is seen as inferior to the category of adulthood, and hence need more socio-legal and economic protection.
If we talk about the imbalance of power (given the case of paedophelia) along the axes of age, body size, gender/sex, as critical to proving paedophelia is wrong, hwo do we prove that paedophelia is more wrong than acts or "crimes" committed that involve the same categories? For example, a gerontocracy that disciplines the bodies of women, or an oppressive state forcing young men into military conscription?
Any way, what is it about our attitude towards and knowledge of paedophelia that makes it seem very wrong?
Is there a deontic or consequentialist explanation for/against this?